this post was submitted on 05 Nov 2023
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[–] [email protected] 20 points 10 months ago (2 children)

q1 and q2 can be negative. The force is the same as if they were positive because -1 x -1 = 1

[–] [email protected] 4 points 10 months ago (1 children)

In this case yes, but if q1 was -20μC, q2 was 30μC, and r was 0.5m, then using -20μC as it is would make F equal to -21.6N which is just 21.6N of attraction force between the two charges.

[–] [email protected] 5 points 10 months ago (1 children)

If they are oppositely charged particles, I would expect that there is a force of attraction acting on them, yes.

[–] [email protected] 1 points 10 months ago (1 children)

I am not saying that's wrong, just that there's 21.6N of attraction force between the two charges not -21.6N.

[–] [email protected] 2 points 10 months ago (1 children)

But those are the same thing.

[–] [email protected] 3 points 10 months ago (1 children)

No, if the force is negative it acts in the opposite direction

[–] [email protected] 5 points 10 months ago

Yes, and a force acting in the opposite direction of the distance is an attractive force.

[–] [email protected] 0 points 10 months ago* (last edited 10 months ago) (1 children)

But that if both are negative not one pos one neg like the previous commenter gave in their examples, so the true formula has an absolute value in the numerator: |q1Xq2|

[–] [email protected] 1 points 10 months ago

No, but there should be a minus in the Coulomb formula