this post was submitted on 11 Oct 2023
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submitted 2 years ago* (last edited 2 years ago) by hypertown@lemmy.world to c/memes@lemmy.ml
 
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[โ€“] ThatWeirdGuy1001@lemmy.world 19 points 2 years ago* (last edited 2 years ago) (26 children)

I know I'm bad at math but I don't understand how 2x0=0 but 2^0=1

How are they different answers when they're both essentially multiplying 2 by zero?

Someone with a bigger brain please explain this

Edit: I greatly appreciate all the explanations but all they've done is solidify the fact that I'll never be good at math ๐Ÿ˜ญ

[โ€“] GigglyBobble@kbin.social 1 points 2 years ago* (last edited 2 years ago) (1 children)

2^0 isn't multiplying by zero. Considering this law: 2^a / 2^b = 2^(a-b)
it's obvious why 2^0 = 1
If a=b you're dividing by the same number resulting in 1.

Unfortunately, I cannot explain/prove the first law though.

[โ€“] zalgotext@sh.itjust.works 3 points 2 years ago* (last edited 2 years ago)

The first rule is just simple division:

(2x2x2x2) / (2x2) =

(2/2) * (2/2) * 2 * 2=

1 * 1 * 2 * 2 =

2 * 2 =

4

Writing in terms of powers:

(2^4) / (2^2) =

(2^(4-2)) =

(2^2) =

4

The two bottom 2's "cancel out" (really they just divide into one another to make 1's) two of the top 2's and you're left with two top twos.

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