this post was submitted on 05 Sep 2024
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The Geneva convention was established to minimise atrocities in conflicts. Israeli settlements in Gaza are illegal and violate the Geneva convention. Legality of Israeli settlements Article 51 of the Geneva convention prohibits indiscriminate attacks on civilian population yet Israel attacked hospitals with children inside. Whether you agree or not that Hamas were present, children cannot be viewed as combatants.so when no care was taken to protect them, does this not constitute a violation? According to save the children, 1 in 50 children in Gaza had been killed or injured. This is a very high proportion and does not show care being taken to prevent such casualties and therefore constitutes a violation.

So my question is simply, do supporters of Israel no longer support our believe in the Geneva convention, did you never, or how do you reconcile Israeli breaches of the Geneva convention? For balance I should add "do you not believe such violations are occurring and if so how did you come to this position?"

Answers other than only "they have the right to go after Hamas " please. The issue is how they are going after Hamas, not whether they should or not.

EDIT: Title changed to remove ambiguity about supporting Israel vs supporting their actions

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[–] [email protected] 20 points 2 months ago* (last edited 2 months ago) (30 children)

This is a loaded question. It pretends every supporter of Israel also supports the current government, the illegal occupation, the ongoing war, and throwing the Geneva convention out.

I support Israel's right to exist as a sovereign state and a homeland for the Jewish people.

But I support none of the above.

And no, I don't have a good solution for this age-old conflict either.

[–] [email protected] 17 points 2 months ago (16 children)

a homeland for the Jewish people.

Weird way to call a stolen property lol

[–] [email protected] -4 points 2 months ago (9 children)

It's not stolen. Brief history lesson:

The lands of Israel and Jordan used to be part of the Ottoman Empire. The Ottomans sided with the Nazis.

Brief aside: we know the Arabs believe that if you win a war, you win the land, and if you lose a war, you lose the land, because that's what they want to happen with Israel. So this principle applies to them as well.

When the Nazis lost, the Ottomans also lost, and that's where the British and French Mandates began. The land was no longer owned by the Arabs because, according to the principle they live by, they lost the war, therefore they lost the land.

The British Mandate for Palestine comprised an amount of previously Ottoman land, of which they allocated one third to the new country Israel (which includes Gaza and the West Bank), and two thirds to the new country Transjordan, later renamed Jordan. The land of Israel was not stolen by the Jews from the Arabs, it was lost by the Arabs in a war they lost. But they got two thirds of that land back, i.e. Jordan.

[–] [email protected] 6 points 2 months ago (1 children)

It's remarkable how respectful you are of Arab views that you don't also hold but which happen to be convenient for you.

[–] [email protected] 0 points 2 months ago

They also completely lied.

The Ottoman empire didn't exist after the Great War.

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