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Assuming we don't have free will, why do we have the illusion that we do? (slrpnk.net)

submitted 4 months ago* (last edited 4 months ago) by [email protected] to c/[email protected]

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Three possibilities come to mind:

Is there an evolutionary purpose?

Does it arise as a consequence of our mental activities, a sort of side effect of our thinking?

Is it given a priori (something we have to think in order to think at all)?

EDIT: Thanks for all the responses! Just one thing I saw come up a few times I'd like to address: a lot of people are asking 'Why assume this?' The answer is: it's purely rhetorical! That said, I'm happy with a well thought-out 'I dispute the premiss' answer.

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[–] [email protected] -4 points 4 months ago (1 children)

If you choose to believe so, like I said I don’t really care

What?

We literally and scientifically know that it does...

I just want to thank you for typing that ahead of all that other shit you pulled out of your ass.

No one's reading it anyways, but at least they won't feel bad for skipping it

[–] [email protected] 3 points 4 months ago

No, we don't know the brain is making use of any quantum phenomena. At best if there is any quantum phenomena in the brain it would just contribute noise. The idea that interference phenomena is actually made use of in the brain for computation is just not backed by anything.