this post was submitted on 08 Jan 2024
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Microsoft, OpenAI sued for copyright infringement by nonfiction book authors in class action claim::The new copyright infringement lawsuit against Microsoft and OpenAI comes a week after The New York Times filed a similar complaint in New York.

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[–] [email protected] 3 points 11 months ago (1 children)

Even using user data (that they own legally) for machine learning could get them into trouble in some parts of the developed world because users 10 years ago couldn‘t anticipate it could be used that way and not give their full consent for that.

Where, for example?

[–] [email protected] 1 points 11 months ago (1 children)

The European Union, for example.

[–] [email protected] 2 points 11 months ago (1 children)

That's not right. It explicitly is legal in the EU.

[–] [email protected] 0 points 11 months ago (1 children)

That is not how the EU works. Member states can get together to tarif and sanction behavior, but just because the EU generally allows something doesn't mean all member states have to abide. Different constitutions and all. Besides I'd like to know where exactly any EU resolution explicitly allows corporations to throw any data they have at any technology or LLM's specifically even when nobody ever gave consent to that. Corporations have to be quite specific for how they process your data and broadly saying "machine learning stuff" 10 years ago isn't really water proof.

[–] [email protected] 1 points 11 months ago

No. EU legislation often has so-called opening clauses that allow member states to tune "EU laws" to their needs but it's not the default behavior.

You seem to have the GDPR in mind. It regulates personal data, meaning data that can be tied to a person. If that is not possible, the GDPR has no objections.