this post was submitted on 20 Aug 2023
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Nuanced difference. My point was that the significant drop in poverty from 1950-1970 existed with the increase and proliferation of the middle class. Their post implies that 20 year period (1950-1970) had high poverty rate the whole time, which is absolutely false.
It also coincided with the US propagating violent dictatorships and committing unparalleled war crimes abroad. The Korean War, Vietnam War, Indonesian Mass Killings, rise of the House of Saud, Shah in Iran, and incredible meddling and history of coups/death squads in Latin America.
That middle class wasn't made by just engaging in good business, unless you consider the violence of imperialism good business... In which case absolutely go fuck yourself... But only if you stand by all that foreign aggression and murder and downstream oppression.
Looks at instance…
Go fuck yourself hexbear Russian apologist. US fuckery internationally did nothing to build the middle class at home any more than Putin’s war crimes are helping the Russian economy.
Yeah I’m sure it didn’t, they were just meddling in other countries’ politics just for fun
They were meddling for corporate profit. And if you think corporate profit helps the middle class then I’ve got a bag full of pigshit called “trickle down economics” to sell you.
How, in your mind, was the middle class in the first world created?
How did the great depression end?
Did Keynesianism not rest upon massive military spending as laid out in NSC-68?