this post was submitted on 25 Jun 2024
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Not in the EU it doesn't, unless they got the user to review that Agreement and agree before the sale took place.
After the implicit contract which is the sale has been agreed to by both parties (the buyer gave the money, the seller took it), one of the parties can't force the other party to agree to a new contract before they're allowed to get the contractual benefits of the original contract (i.e. the buyer getting to use the product they bought, the seller getting to use the money they got).
It doesn't matter if the seller has such power de facto - legally they most definitelly can't blackmail the buyer by denying them their side of the contractual rights they got in the Act of Sale by blocking their use of the product they bought until they agree to a new Agreement from the seller.