this post was submitted on 27 Feb 2024
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How can they say the differences are inherent? Wouldn’t you have to control for someone’s entire socialization to say that?
Clarify why that would be necessary, I'm not following your argument well.
You can't point to a difference and say it's (directly) caused by chromosomes or the SRY gene or hormones, whatever. Brain differences increase with age, suggesting that they may be more to do with socialisation than genetics. Does this evidence prove that women should be treated differently or is it evidence that women are, in fact, treated differently?
The article touches on your question. It says that it's too earlier to know if the differences are caused by hormones, chromosomes, or socialization. No point in speculating.