this post was submitted on 21 May 2024
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Source? From what I’ve heard, recent studies are showing the opposite.
Source
But there's a lot more studies who have essentially said the same thing. The cathartic hypothesis is mainly a byproduct of the Freudian era of psychology, where hypothesis mainly just sounded good to someone on too much cocaine.
Do you have a source of studies showing the opposite?
Let's see here, listen to my therapist who has decades of real experience or a study from over 20 years ago?
Sorry bud, I know who I'm going with on this and it ain't your academic.
Your therapist is still utilizing Freudian psychoanalysis?
Well, if age is a factor in your opinion about the validity of the care you receive, I have some bad news for you.....
You're still using 5,000 year old Armenian shoes?
Of course not. Stop being reductive.
Lol, you were the one who first dismissed evidence because it was 20 years old.....
The point is you can reduce anything to its origin. That does not mean it's still the same thing.
Okay, but how does the modern version of cathartic theory differ from what freud postulated?
I agree you can't reduce things based on its original alone , which is why I included a scientific source as evidence......
I don't know, that's why I have a therapist, I'm not educated in psychology. But I do recognize a logical fallacy when I see one.
I doubt that, so far your argument has been based on the anecdotal fallacy mixed with a bit of the appeal to authority fallacy.
Lmao. Says the guy who tried to use a study on aggression to address sexual urges.
Reading comprehension is still hard for you? My argument was about Cathartic theory, which includes several emotions including sexual urges...... It is a theory from freud, of course it covers sexual urges.
You and the other guy just have no idea what you're talking about. How about providing any kind of source instead of talking out of your ass?